CCNA LAN Switching and Wireless, final exam answers

ESwitching Final version3 - LAN Switching and Wireless, V4.0


1. Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

2. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.
SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.
SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The teacher host is connected to port Fa0/7 on switch STW. A student has decided to share access to the Internet by attaching a hub and laptop to STW as shown. What will be the result of the student making this connection?
The Fa0/7 port of STW will be shutdown.
The student will gain full access to the Internet.
Both the teacher and student will be able to receive data but only the teacher will be able to send.
The frames from the laptop will be dropped, but the teacher host will maintain connectivity with the network.

4. A network administrator configures a switch port with the command switchport mode dynamic auto. What is the resulting behavior of the switch port?
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to auto.
The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to desirable.
The switch port will be disabled if it is unable to successfully negotiate trunking.
A successful trunk will be established if the remote switch is non-Cisco but the port is configured for trunking.

5. Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment?
non-root port
disabled port
designated port
non-designated port

6. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

7. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 10 has been configured on the VTP server. Users who are assigned to VLAN 10 are connected as shown in the exhibit. On the basis of the outputs that are provided, which group of users will be able to communicate with the users on VLAN 10 on SW1?
all the users who are connected only to SW2
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW3
users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW4
users on VLAN 10 who are connected to both SW3 and SW4

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20?
A
B
C
D

11. Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.

12. In a three-layer hierarchical network design, which distribution layer function delineates broadcast domains?
routing between VLANs
aggregating traffic flows
providing redundant links
reducing the network diameter

13. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS

14. What is one disadvantage that 802.11a wireless has compared to 802.11g?
Use of the 5GHz band requires much larger antennas.
The OFDM modulation technique results in a slower data rate.
There are fewer non-overlapping channels available to help reduce RF interference.
The use of higher frequencies means that signals are more likely to be obstructed.

15. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
It is configured in VTP server mode.
STP is automatically enabled.
The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
The enable password is configured as cisco.

16. Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology?
It is sending and receiving data frames.
It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

17. While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?
This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.
This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.
This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.
This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.

18. Which statement describes the use of voice VLANs in Cisco IP telephony?
The voice VLAN carries both tagged and untagged traffic.
The voice VLAN carries untagged traffic having special QoS markings.
The voice VLAN must be configured on the switch port to which the IP phone attaches.
Data and voice frames are tagged with same VLAN ID between the IP phone and the switch when a voice VLAN is configured.

19. Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?
zero
one
two
four

20.Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

21. Refer to the exhibit. The VTP domain has been configured as shown in the exhibit. The network technician accidentally configured the VTP server as a VTP client. After the technician reloaded the switches, all users in the VTP domain started to complain that they lost connectivity to the users on the same VLANs that are connected to other switches. What should be done in the future to prevent losing all VLAN configurations in a VTP domain?
Configure all switches in VTP transparent mode and copy the VLAN configuration into flash.
Configure all switches in the network as VTP clients and copy the VLAN configuration into NVRAM.
Create a new domain and configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.
In the same domain, configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.

22. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

23. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?
The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.
The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.
The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

24. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

25. What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch?
automatically detects duplex settings
automatically detects interface speed
automatically detects copper cable type
automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

26.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
DS1, DS2, and CS1
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

27. Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting?
user EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
global configuration mode
interface configuration mode

28.Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

29.Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table

30. What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?
The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.

31. Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.

32. A network administrator is implementing VTP in a large campus LAN that contains one hundred switches. What are valid considerations for reliability and administration?
Using server mode on a single master switch and client mode on all other switches will provide the most fault tolerance for retaining VLAN information in all switches if power is lost on the network.
Using transparent mode on all switches will allow for efficient administration and prevent VLAN data loss from the loss of any single switch.
Configuring several switches in server mode will allow all VLANs to be entered from a single switch and preserve VLAN data if any of the switches or connections are lost.
Configuring one primary and one backup switch in server mode and all other switches in transparent mode will provide fault tolerance for the VLAN data and allow for efficient distribution of the VLAN configurations to all switches.

33.Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.

34. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
force the port to be a part of a single vlan

35. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when a frame from a source MAC address different from 00a8.d2e4.ba27 reaches switch port 0/5?
The frame is dropped.
The port is shut down.
An error message is displayed.
FastEthernet port 0/5 will show an err-disabled messag

36. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of the commands that are shown in the exhibit?
Only clients on VLAN 2 will be able to use DHCP for addressing.
DHCP server responses will only be permitted on interface Fa0/2.
Only 100 clients are permitted to request DHCP addresses on VLAN 2.
Client requests for DHCP addresses will be filtered out if the requests are not received on interface Fa0/2.

37. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

38.Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of issuing these commands?
The enable password will be set.
The password will be set for the first Telnet connection.
The password will be set for the console connection.
The password will be set for the auxiliary connection.


39. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN

40. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will drop the packet.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

41. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs. The connected hosts can only access resources in their own VLAN. What is the most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?
Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC.
Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to its own switch.
Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link.
Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface.

42. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.31 /28
192.168.1.32 /28
192.168.1.52 /28
192.168.1.63 /28

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two switch interfaces would be RSTP edge ports? (Choose two.)
switch S1, Fa0/1
switch S3, Fa0/5
switch S4, Fa0/1
switch S2, Fa0/3
switch S4, Fa0/2
switch S3, Fa0/2

44. What is a function or characteristic of the native VLAN?
It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.
It is always assigned to VLAN 1 for backward compatibility.
It is always the same VLAN number for all trunks within an organization.
It is used as the management VLAN throughout the entire switched network.

45. A network administrator must purchase new access layer switches to deploy across an existing hierarchical network that supports voice and data traffic. At a minimum, which two features should the new access layer switches support? (Choose two.)
PoE
QoS
modular design
Layer 3 support
line speed forwarding rates


46. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?
It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

CCNA Exploration ESwitching final exam answers

ESwitching Final version2 - LAN Switching and Wireless, V4.0


1. A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?
probing
beaconing
association
authentication

2.Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two switch interfaces would be RSTP edge ports? (Choose two.)
switch S1, Fa0/1
switch S3, Fa0/5
switch S4, Fa0/1
switch S2, Fa0/3
switch S4, Fa0/2
switch S3, Fa0/2

4. What is a function or characteristic of the native VLAN?
It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.
It is always assigned to VLAN 1 for backward compatibility.
It is always the same VLAN number for all trunks within an organization.
It is used as the management VLAN throughout the entire switched network.

5. A network administrator must purchase new access layer switches to deploy across an existing hierarchical network that supports voice and data traffic. At a minimum, which two features should the new access layer switches support? (Choose two.)
PoE
QoS
modular design
Layer 3 support
line speed forwarding rates

6. Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device?
a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N
a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N
a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N
a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it

7.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

8.Refer to the exhibit. SW-T has been configured with a single trunking interface. Which VLANs will be allowed across the trunk?
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
All configured VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the the management and native VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLANs that are configured on the VTP server in the domain will be allowed across the trunk.

9.Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
all hosts that are shown
only hosts B and C
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, D, E, and F
only hosts D, E, and F

10.Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode.
Configure a default gateway on the switch.
Configure the native VLAN on the switch.
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs.

11.Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

12.Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

13.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning five additional VLANs to be shared throughout the VTP domain on S3. What action should the administrator take before creating the additional VLANs?
Create the VLANs on a switch in VTP server mode and allow them to propogate to the other switches in the domain.
Modify the configuration revision to 10 to support the additional VLANs.
Enable the VTP pruning mode in order to create the VLANs on S3.
Enable the VTP v2 mode.

14.Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
revision number
existing VLANs
operating mode
domain name
pruning mode

15. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?
The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.
The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.
The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

16.Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

17. Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?
fragment-free
fast-forward
integrity-checking
store-and-forward

18. Which wireless topology supports roaming from one access point to another?
ESS
BSS
IBSS
ad hoc

19. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address

20.Refer to the exhibit. The broadcast traffic from PC1 is consuming bandwidth on the interswitch trunks. What should be done to prevent this from happening?
Move PC1 to a port on SW3.
Move PC2 to a port on SW3.
Move PC1 to a port on SW2.
Enable pruning for VLAN10 on the VTP server.
Associate PC1 as a member of a new VLAN.

21.Refer to the exhibit. What happens when a frame from a source MAC address different from 00a8.d2e4.ba27 reaches switch port 0/5?
The frame is dropped.
The port is shut down.
An error message is displayed.
FastEthernet port 0/5 will show an err-disabled message.

22. A wireless access point is configured for WPA2. Which encryption algorithm will all devices that connect to the access point be required to use?
AES
PPK
PSK
TKIP
WEP

23. Where is the information of newly created VLANs stored on a switch?
CPU
flash
NVRAM
RAM

24.Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.

25.Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

26.Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?
SW1(config)# vtp version 1
SW2(config)# vtp mode client
SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1
SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent

27. Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment?
non-root port
disabled port
designated port
non-designated port

28. What is one disadvantage that 802.11a wireless has compared to 802.11g?
Use of the 5GHz band requires much larger antennas.
The OFDM modulation technique results in a slower data rate.
There are fewer non-overlapping channels available to help reduce RF interference.
The use of higher frequencies means that signals are more likely to be obstructed.

29. Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.

30. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?
It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

31. What are two benefits of a hierarchical network model over a flat network design? (Choose two.)
reduced cost of equipment
increased network availability
elimination of equipment downtime
reduced size of the physical network layout
simplification of management and troubleshooting
elimination of the need for Layer 3 functionality

32. What is the purpose of VLAN trunking?
It improves network performance by reducing broadcast traffic.
It selects the best path to transmit data in a switched network.
It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs through a single link.
It avoids spanning tree loops in a switched network.

33. Which two statements describe the operation of an access layer Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
Broadcasts are natively blocked by the switch.
Subnetting is used by the switch to segment local networks.
Frames that contain an unknown destination MAC address are dropped by the switch.
The source MAC address within a frame is used by the switch to associate a port with that MAC address.
Frames are directed by the switch from one port to another based on the destination MAC address within the frame.
Data packets are forwarded by the switch from one port to another based on the destination IP address within the packet.

34. Which two types of traffic are always transmitted as untagged frames? (Choose two.)
traffic that is assigned to the default VLAN
traffic that is assigned to the native VLAN
traffic from the voice VLAN on an IP phone
Telnet, HTTP, or SSH traffic for switch management
traffic that is leaving an access mode port that is connected to another switch

35.Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

36. Which statement correctly describes a function of a Layer 2 switch?
It routes packets between different LAN segments.
It uses the destination MAC address to selectively forward a frame.
It performs switching and filtering based on the destination network layer address.
It drops a frame whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table.

37.Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.

38.Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology.
Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information.
Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.

39.Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

40.Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?
zero
four
five
eight
nine

41.Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

42. What is the benefit of the auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
dynamically assigns a new management VLAN ID
autonegotiates IP address information for initial management connections
allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device types
places a port immediately in the forwarding state to reduce the time for the spanning tree to reconverge

43. A network technician is attempting to configure 802.1q trunking on switch ports Fa0/5 through Fa0/10. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets.
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.

CCNA Exploration 3 final exam answers

ESwitching Final 1 - LAN Switching and Wireless, V4.0


1. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when a frame from a source MAC address different from 00a8.d2e4.ba27 reaches switch port 0/5?
The frame is dropped.
The port is shut down.
An error message is displayed.
FastEthernet port 0/5 will show an err-disabled message.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN

3. A network administrator issued the erase nvram: command on a switch. What will be the outcome of the command?
It will clear the contents of the MAC table.
It will clear the contents of the VLAN database.
It will clear the contents of the startup configuration file.
It will clear the contents of the running configuration file.

4. What type of message do wireless clients transmit when they are searching for a specific wireless network?
probe
beacon
associate
authenticate

5. What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.
The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
DS1, DS2, and CS1
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

7. A network administrator enters the enable command at the Switch> prompt of a new switch. What mode will the switch enter?
setup mode
configuration mode
privileged EXEC mode
user EXEC mode
ROMMON mode
interface mode

8. Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

9. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address

10. Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will drop the packet.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?
SW1(config)# vtp version 1
SW2(config)# vtp mode client
SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1
SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent

14. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?
The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.
The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.
The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

15. What is the purpose of the switch command switchport access vlan 99?
to enable port security
to make the port operational
to assign the port to a particular VLAN
to designate the VLAN that does not get tagged
to assign the port to the native VLAN (VLAN 99)

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs. The connected hosts can only access resources in their own VLAN. What is the most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN communication in this network?
Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC.
Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to its own switch.
Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link.
Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.31 /28
192.168.1.32 /28
192.168.1.52 /28
192.168.1.63 /28

18. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?
It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What does “LEARNING” mean as it relates to the Spanning Tree Protocol?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is not receiving BPDUs, but is sending and receiving data.
The switch is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

20. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
Select the correct VTP mode and version.
Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.

21. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

22. How does a switch that is configured for 802.1Q trunking handle untagged frames that are received on a trunk port?
The frames are dropped.
The frames are assigned to the native VLAN.
The frames are assigned to the default VLAN.
The frames are assigned to the management VLAN.

23. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
transparent

24. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

26. Which feature is uniquely found in an access layer switch within a hierarchical network model?
link aggregation
Power over Ethernet
access control lists
Layer 3 routing capabilities

27. While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?
This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.
This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.
This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.
This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20?
A
B
C
D

29. Using the command copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config, an administrator downloaded a saved configuration from a TFTP server to a switch. Why does the administrator not detect any changes in the switch configuration after the download completes?
The command should have been copy startup-config tftp:backup.cfg.
A backup configuration from a TFTP server cannot be copied directly into the startup-config.
The command copy running-config startup-config should be used to save the changes on the switch.
Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
revision number
existing VLANs
operating mode
domain name
pruning mode

31. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.
SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.
SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.

32. Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.

33. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured R1 and S1 as displayed. However, PC1 is unable to access PC2. What is the likely problem?
No routing protocol is configured on R1.
The Fa0/1 port of S1 is not a trunk port.
The default gateway address is not set on S1.
Only one physical link between S1 and R1 is configured for inter-VLAN routing.

34. Refer to the exhibit. A network has already been configured with VTP, using DLS1 as the VTP server for the VTP domain Cisco. What will happen when the DLS2 switch is connected to the DLS1 switch via a trunk link?
Because the VTP domain is not configured on DLS2, nothing will happen.
Because DLS2 is in client mode, it will be updated with the VLANs that are configured on DLS1.
The MD5 digest on DLS2 does not match the one on DLS1, so an error message will be logged to the console.
Because DLS2 has a higher revision number than DLS1 has, the VLAN information on DLS1 will be overwritten by the information on DLS2.

35. What information in an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 2 switch to build its address table?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

36. A wireless LAN access point will convert traffic between which two frame encapsulation types?
802.1 and 802.11
802.3 and 802.11
802.3 and 802.16
802.5 and 802.16

37. A network administrator is asked to connect four switches that are each configured with eight VLANs. Routers that have two FastEthernet ports each that support trunking are available. What is the minimum number of routers needed to interconnect traffic from all of the VLANs if trunking is allowed?
1
2
4
8
16

38. Refer to the exhibit. The network consists of four hubs and a switch. The hosts connected to each hub are assigned addresses in the respective VLAN as shown. PC1 on VLAN 1 becomes infected with a virus and initiates a continuous IP broadcast. Which hubs will receive the broadcasts?
Hub A
Hubs A and B
Hubs A and C
Hubs A, B, C, and D

39. What are two characteristics of normal range VLANs? (Choose two.)
not learned by VTP
stored in vlan.dat file
designed for service providers
can contain ports used as trunks
identified by a VLAN ID between 1 and 1005

40. What is the benefit of the auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
dynamically assigns a new management VLAN ID
autonegotiates IP address information for initial management connections
allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device types
places a port immediately in the forwarding state to reduce the time for the spanning tree to reconverge

41. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the problem?
Interface Fa0/0 is missing IP address configuration information.
IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs.
Each subinterface of Fa0/0 needs separate no shutdown commands.
Routers do not support 802.1Q encapsulation on subinterfaces.

42. Why is priority configured in 4096 increments when using PVST+?
Use of the extended bridge ID leaves only four bits for the bridge priority.
It is only a recommended value and could be any number between 1 and 65535.
PVST+ requires the use of values that can be divided equally into 32768 and not leave a remainder.
The MAC address uses eight bytes of the bridge ID leaving only two bytes for the bridge priority value.

43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. Which two sets of commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
S1-Central# configure terminal
S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# configure terminal
S1-Central(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

44. What benefit does 802.1x provide to a wireless network?
increased wireless range
faster wireless throughput
centralized user authentication
quality of service to differentiate high priority traffic

45. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name

46. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

47. What operational change will occur if an 802.11b client associates with an access point that is currently supporting clients utilizing 802.11g?
The 802.11g clients will disassociate from the AP.
The 802.11g clients will operate at reduced speeds.
The 802.11b client will never gain access to the channel.
The 802.11b client will not be able to establish an IP session with any of the other 802.11g clients.

48. What does TKIP have in common with AES?
Both encrypt Layer 2 payloads.
Both authenticate using a shared key.
They both use sequence numbers to ensure that all packets arrive.
They both use data from the MAC header to verify the integrity of the data.

49. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4

50. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

CCNA Exploration 3 answers Chapter 7

 ESwitching  Chapter7 - LAN Switching and Wireless, V4.0

 
1. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

2. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
set up WEP on the access point only
set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

3. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
dynamically assigns an IP address to the host
provides local DHCP services
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

4. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.
Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.
Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.
Disable SSID broadcasts.

5. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?
association response
beacon
key
probe request

6. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?
authentication
SSID broadcasting
MAC address filtering
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

7. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?
This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.

8. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

9. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
site survey
risk assessment
scalability design
network protocol analysis

10. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel

11. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

12. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?
Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.
Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

13. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?
to keep users segregated on separate subnets
to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized
to keep signals from interfering with each other
to keep traffic secure

14. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.
Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections. 
Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

15. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access. 
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

16. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n

17. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)
gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
built-in Ethernet switch
network management station
VTP server
wireless access point
VPN concentrator

18. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
beacon
password
probe request
association request

19. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?
bandwidth saturation
privacy concerns
media contention
device interoperability

20. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?
CSMA/CD
token passing
CSMA/CA
polling

21. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?
converts clear text data before transmission
indicates which channel the data should flow on
determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
allows the host to choose which channel to use

CCNA Exploration 3 answers Chapter 6

ESwitching  Chapter6 - LAN Switching and Wireless, V4.0

 

1. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?
Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

2.Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?
PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

3. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.
When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MACaddress of the port to which the PC is connected.
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MACaddress of the physical interface in response to ARP requests. 
When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

4. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
a network with more than 100 subnetworks
a network with a limited number of VLANs
a network with experienced support personnel
a network using a router with one LAN interface

5.Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report: 
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?
The router interface is shut down.
The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

6. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

7.Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

8.Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

9.Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

10.Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLANrouting to be successful.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

11.Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network designshown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This design will not scale easily.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

12. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?
Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routingbetween VLANs.
Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

13.Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, thenetwork administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?
R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.
R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdowncommand yet.

14. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

15. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port. 
Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

16. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

17. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

18.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
Port 0/4 is not active.
Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

19. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.
The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.

20.Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?
R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

CCNA Exploration 3 answers Chapter 5

ESwitching  Chapter5 - LAN Switching and Wireless, V4.0


1. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

2. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

3. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcastframe that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?

Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will reply with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will reply with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

4. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

5. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP have the same BPDU format and flag field information.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places designated ports into forwarding state immediately.

6. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

7. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forwarduser data?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

8. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID

9. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

10. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network 

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
 
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

12. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

13. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point 

14. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?

Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

15. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

16. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to theforwarding port elected for every Ethernet LAN segment that links two switches?
alternate
backup
designated
edge

17. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

18. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port 

19. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?

Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

20. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.